Q11 of 99 Page 59

Mark (√) against the correct answer in the following:

Let A and B be two non - empty sets and let


f : (A × B) → (B × A) : f(a, b) = (b, a). Then, f is


SINCE, f(a, b) = (b, a).There is no same value of y at different values of x ∴function is one one


∴Range(A×B)≠Codomain(B × A)


⇒function is into

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