Mark the Correct alternative in the following:
If n = 1, 2, 3, …., then cos α cos 2 α cos 4 α … cos 2n – 1 α is equal to
Given expression
cos α cos 2 α cos 4 α … cos 2n – 1 α
multiplying and dividing the expression by 2 sin α , we get,
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[using sin 2x = 2 sin x cos x]
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Now multiplying and dividing the expression with 2.
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Continuing this process for n-1 times we will get
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Now repeating for the last time,
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This proves that
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Hence the answer is option D.
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