Prove that:
sec4A (1– sin4A) – 2tan2 A = 1
Taking LHS
= sec4A(1 - sin4A) - 2tan2A
= sec4A - sin4A sec4A - 2tan2A
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= sec4A - tan4A - tan2A - tan2A
= sec4A - tan2A(1 + tan2A) - tan2A
= sec4A - tan2A sec2A - tan2A [As, sec2θ = 1 + tan2θ ]
= sec2A(sec2A - tan2A) - tan2A
= sec2A - tan2A [As, sec2θ = 1 + tan2θ ⇒ sec2θ - tan2θ = 1]
= 1
= RHS
Proved !
Couldn't generate an explanation.
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