“There is a vital difference between the empire building of pre-capitalist times and that of capitalist times”. Which was applicable in the case of India and why? Give one reason.
Yes, it is true that “There is a vital difference between the empire building of pre-capitalist times and that of capitalist times”. In the pre-capitalist times, the conquerors were interested in the constant flow of tribute without interfering in the economic sector. They only took the tribute from the surplus that was generated traditionally in the conquered areas.
In the case of India, the Capitalist system was applicable because British colonialism interfered in the economic sector of the country for the maximum profit and advantage to British capitalism. For example –
• They changed the laws of the land. In other words, they not only decided to change the land ownership but to decide what crops should be grown and what not.
Couldn't generate an explanation.
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